yad
Forum Junior
Topics: 12
Posts: 30
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So they show a pedigree with mitochondrial inheritance. All kids of the affected mother gets optic atrophy. Then they ask about the risk of getting optic atrophy of the kids of an affected male.
Answer is 100%? WHy? I thought it would be 0% because affected male would not pass on to kids.
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| kpalam
Forum Newbie
Topics: 0
Posts: 13
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YOU ARE CORRECT.
because affected male's sperm cell does not carry the mitocondra inside egg during fertilization.so mitochondrial DNA always inherited through female eggs. 
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| DRFP
Forum Newbie
Topics: 3
Posts: 47
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the answer is 100% because an Affected Male has the disease, but they cannot pass it on so the offspring would be 0
Its a trick they use to confuse you, I had to think on that one too
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| new_n_lost
Politically InCorrect
Topics: 650
Posts: 6,056
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yes this question had confused almost everybody and key supposedly provided with the forms is wrong on many questions. So we had our own discussion on the Form 1 & 3 in the Pathology Forum have a look at it too.
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| mikky
Forum Elite
Topics: 15
Posts: 284
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i`m confused... the answer is zero,right????
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| new_n_lost
Politically InCorrect
Topics: 650
Posts: 6,056
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yes of course its a mitochondrial disease there is no way in heck that a Male offspring cud transfer it.
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| SmokyWaters
Forum Elite
Topics: 6
Posts: 458
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yes its ZERO
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| DRFP
Forum Newbie
Topics: 3
Posts: 47
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yes the kids of an affected male is 0 but I do not remember if that is what the Q asked? Now I'm confused on the real Q, I thought it asked about the male offspring of the affected mom, what chance they would be affected, affected mom=all children so 100% if that was the case.
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| mikky
Forum Elite
Topics: 15
Posts: 284
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ok... thanx guyz...
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