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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author7 Posts
  #1

a 16 y.o boy with NF brought a follow up examination. his uncle also has NF. he has 1 yr history of headache during which his parents say he appears pale. Six mo. ago, he underwent operative treatment for an optic nerve glioma. his blood pressures is 164/105mmHG, pp 102, resp14. The thyroid glans are not enlarged. No murmurs are heard, and radial pulses are equal. Ab examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this pt's high blood pressure?
a) catecholamine-producing tu
b) carcinoma of the thyroid gland
c) essential HTN
d) overproduction of aldosterone from an adrenal adenoma
e) postsubclavian coarctation of the aorta

Edited by elitoki on 09/18/07 - 08:17 AM

  #2

a) catecholamine-producing tu: pheochro

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  #3

A

  #4

c) essential HTN


  #5

I guess c. Hypertension is frequent in patients with NF1 and may develop at any age. In most patients, the hypertension is essential, but vascular dysplasia can occur in association with NF1 and may produce renal artery stenosis, coarctation of the aorta, or other vascular lesions associated with severe hypertension in adult patients with NF1. Pheochromocytoma can cause severe hypertension in patients with NF1. Malignant neoplasms can occur in patients with NF1 at any age. from http://www.emedicine.com/radio/byname/neurofibrom...

Edited by njcjzy on 09/15/07 - 12:26 PM

  #6

i think its pheochromocytoma as the symptoms include headache with pallor....in optic glioma per se u can get headache,nausea vomiting,painless proptosis,nystagmus,optic atrophy but i dunno if there's pallor...correct me if am wrong njcjzy ....eseential hypertension isnt causing this spectrum either i guess.

  #7

Yes, from that point of view, I would go with A.








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