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Author4 Posts
  #1

Hi,

Can someone please explain the answer to this question:

50 yr old man with hx of poorly controlled htn. BP L arm- 226/120 and BP R arm-218/118. Patient in left lateral decubitus position, and a late diastolic murmur is heard best with bell at the apex. What best explains this findings.

I thought answer was mitral stenosis. But I think answer is aortic insufficiency.

Someone please break it down for me confused

Thanks!

  #2

I also got confused by this question. The Question clearly asks for a Late Diastolic SOUND not a Murmur which i took as an Austin Flint Murmur of AI. But the questions for a sound which is S4 option I cos the pt is of HTN and a late diastolic sound best heard at the apex in the Lateral decubitus position is S4.


___________________
"never argue with a fool, they'll bring you down to their level and beat you with experience" FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #3

Thank you for breaking it down for me. I was so lost!

  #4

Yad ............. Have u figured out this one yet. http://www.prep4usmle.com/forum/comments.php?id=60553

___________________
"never argue with a fool, they'll bring you down to their level and beat you with experience" FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."









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