doyoudig
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22. A 3-year-old girl is brought to the physician after her mother noted blood on her underpants. Examination shows genital condylomata acuminata in the perineal, peri-introital, labial, and anal areas. Some of the pedunculated condylomata appear to have caused the bleeding. She has no visible intravaginal condylomata or vaginal or anal tears. Her mother has a palmar wart on her hand but no history of condylomata acuminata. Her mother has a boyfriend who does not live with them and who has never been left alone with the girl. They live with the mother's 27-year-old brother who only baby-sits the children when they are asleep. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Psychiatric assessment of the mother
B) DNA typing of the mother's palmar wart for papillomavirus
C) Treatment of the mother's palmar wart
D) Vaginal, anal, and throat cultures for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the child
E) Laser therapy of the condylomata acuminata in the child
Can Palmar Wart of Mom be transmitted to child via contact to genital area??
Pls give reasoning
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| Justice
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Risk factors for genital warts include multiple sexual partners, unknown partners, early onset of sexual activity, tobacco use, nutritional status, hormonal influences, age, stress and concurrent viral infections (such as flu, HIV, Epstein-Barr and herpes).
In children, although the virus is often transmitted sexually, non-sexual transmission is possible, particularly if the child is still in diapers. The presence of genital warts (condylomata acuminata) should raise the question of sexual abuse. However, if all of the following are true, then non-sexual transmission is more likely:
* the warts are somewhat distant from the anal or vaginal openings
* the warts are present in close contacts (especially genital warts in mothers)
* the child is younger than 9 months at the time the warts first appear
* there is no evidence for child abuse
The child has no other sites of condilomata
Mom has no genital warts
Child is older than 9 mo
Child has no visible intravaginal condylomata or vaginal or anal tears, but is the hymen intact? Anyway, 3:1 the child does no match criteria for not being abused...
I go with D ) Vaginal, anal, and throat cultures for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the child
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| Justice
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Beside this, genital warts are caused by HPV 6, 11 but palmart warts by HPV 1, 2, 4
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| dr in trouble
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D
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| doyoudig
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thank u guys, n esp justice assume explanation
what ur source ?
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| liliaeliz
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D
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