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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author8 Posts
  #1

A 50-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer has elected to participate in the trial of a new chemotherapeutic agent. It is given by constant intravenous infusion of 8 mg/h. Plasma conc (Cp) are measued with the results shown in the table.
Time after start of infusion (h); plasma conc (mg/L)
1, 0.8
2, 1.3
4, 2.0
8, 3.0
10, 3.6
16, 3.7
20, 3.84
25, 3.95
30, 4.0
40, 4.0

(A) Vd is 30L
(B) CL is 2L/h
(C) Elimination follows zero order kinetics
(D) T½ is 8h
(E) Doubling the rate of infusion would result in a plasma conc of 16 mg/L at 40h


Edited by Jackofknives on 08/21/07 - 07:22 AM

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  #2

B

plz provide explanation


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  #3

Where is the Question line, its seems to be missing ??

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FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #4

at 30,40h plasma con is constant->saturation point,but cant expand more ,plzz tell JOk interesting now

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  #5

yea steady state is 4mg/L

50% of the conc is reached after 4h of infusion, so according to constant infusion principle, half life of the drug is 4h.

dosing rate = CL * Cp => CL = 8 / 4 = 2L/h

t½ = 0.7 * Vd / CL => Vd = t½ * CL * / 0.7 = 11.5L

this drug follows 1st order kinetics

so answer is B


___________________
There are many things in this world that can’t be changed no matter how hard you try. That’s why you must not hesitate when the time comes where you have to give it all you’ve got.

  #6

[quote=Jackofknives]yea steady state is 4mg/L

50% of the conc is reached after 4h of infusion, so according to constant infusion principle, half life of the drug is 4h. ????? WHY

dosing rate = CL * Cp => CL = 8 / 4 = 2L/h

t½ = 0.7 * Vd / CL => Vd = t½ * CL * / 0.7 = 11.5L HOW ?????

this drug follows 1st order kinetics WHY ?????
PLZ MORE EXPLAINATION

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The more I know, the more I don't know!

  #7

when drug is infused into the body, drug accumulation and elimination takes place simultaneously.
So if you infuse 100% by the first t½, you will accumulate 100% - t½ amount = 50%
By the next half life: (50% + 100%) – [t½] = 75%
Next one : (75% + 100%) – [t½] = 87.5%
And so on.

t½ = 0.7 * Vd / CL is just a t½ equation dependant on CL and Vd, I dunno how its derived since ivnt had pharm yet but ill let u know when I get hold of a teacher.

Its first order bc accumulation is progressive and clearly elimination process is not saturated.


___________________
There are many things in this world that can’t be changed no matter how hard you try. That’s why you must not hesitate when the time comes where you have to give it all you’ve got.

  #8

thank u now i get it

except 1 part which is elimination not saturated but it not a big deal wink

thank u again


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