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Author6 Posts
  #1

A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted in labor. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated, and a routine prenatal visit 2 days ago showed no abnormalities. On admission, fetal heart tones cannot be heard. Ultrasonography shows little amniotic fluid, fetal edema, and no evidence of a fetal heartbeat. After 1 hour. she delivers a 31 75-g (7-Ib) stillborn infant: examination of the infant shows no obvious abnormalities except for mild edema. The placenta and membranes appear normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate course of action?

A) Notify the hospital liability department

B) Obtain consent for fetal organ donation from the parents

C) Recommend autopsy of the infant

D) Tell the mother not to worry since she can get pregnant again

E) Tell the parents that there is a 1 in 4 chance of recurrence in future pregnancies


could anyone plz explain this???

thank you!


  #2

c

  #3

C .finding the cause of the stilborn is necessary to prevent occurence in future pregnancy


  #4

thank you guys...I thought it's c too...
but is there any disease match option E??
anything that can cause recurence in future preg.??

  #5

lupus anticoagulant could cause 1st trimester abortion. This lady delivered a stillborn (3rd trimester). Choice E is applicable if the disease is inherited in a recessive fashion.

___________________
"Our greatest glory is not in never falling but in rising every time we fall." --Confucius

  #6

C) Recommend autopsy of the infant

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