skinyballs
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A 34-year-old man presents with a swollen left knee of 2 days' duration. He denies any known trauma to that region and has no prior history of any musculoskeletal complaints. He is in otherwise excellent health. He is homosexual and practices safe sex with a single partner. On physical examination, his knee is swollen, tender to palpation, and erythematous and has a limited range of motion. An arthrocentesis is performed. Which of the following is most suggestive of a septic arthritis in this patient?
A. A complete blood cell count with 14,300 white blood cells per mL
B. A joint fluid aspirate with a white blood cell count of 28,000 per mL
C. A joint fluid aspirate with a white blood cell count of 36,000 per mL
D. A joint fluid aspirate with a white blood cell count of 48,000 per mL
E. A joint fluid aspirate with a white blood cell count of 93,000 per mL
Edited by new_n_lost on 08/21/07 - 05:30 PM. Reason: Deleted the Ad in the Question
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| cirus
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E
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| Drtweetie
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E
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| liliaeliz
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E No inflama. <10000
Inflam. 25000-50000
septic >60000
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| Justice
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| epica
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| kpmle2
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E. A joint fluid aspirate with a white blood cell count of 93,000 per mL
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| skinyballs
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Thank you
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