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Author9 Posts
  #1

[left]A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of flu-like symptoms. For the past 10 days, he has had diffuse myalgias, low-grade fevers, headache, and occasional nausea and vomiting. He reports being generally healthy in the past, though a review of his chart reveals that he was treated for gonorrhea 4 weeks ago. Exam is remarkable for a diffuse, tender lymphadenopathy as well as two small, painful mucocutaneous ulcers in hisoropharynx. On further discussion with the patient, he reveals that he has numerous HIV risk factors, including intravenous drug use and sex with commercial sex workers. Which of the following is the most appropriate HIV test for this patient

A) CD4+ T-cell count

B) ELISA for HIV antibody

C) HIV RNA level

D) P24 antigen serology

E) Western blot



  #2

C) HIV RNA level

this is the only test in acute stage

___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #3

wink

  #4

C) HIV RNA level nod





___________________
The elevator to succes is broke ,you must take the stairs

  #5

it is not ELISA best initial test ??


  #6

we start with ELISA and the confirmatory is western blot

Edited by cool doctor on 12/20/07 - 03:22 PM

  #7

it is the acute conversion phase...this is when the Ab first appear in blood...the first best test is HIV ELISA followed by a confirmation by Western Blot


  #8

ELISA...except in newborns of HIV+ve..if ELISA negative with real suspicion, do western blot

___________________
Old McDonald had an ERAS inbox..with a reject here and a reject there..here a reject, there a reject,everywhere a reject, reject.

  #9

ELISA is the initial test in HIV but since the pt may be in the window period the best test would be p24 antigen level since it is the first marker that rises in the blood. take a look at kaplan notes for step 1 and u will find a figure indiacting this









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