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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author7 Posts
  #1

2) A 75-year-old woman comes to the physician because of irregular vaginal bleeding. She has been menopausal for the past 25 years, but has noted on-and-off spotting for the past 2 years, which she finds intolerable. She has a complicated past medical history including hypertension, diabetes, and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that demonstrates an endometrial polyp with atypical cells that are difficult to grade. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Hormone replacement therapy
B. Oral contraceptive pill
C. Hysteroscopy
D. Laparoscopy
E. Hysterectomy



  #2

E HYSTRECTOMY

  #3

thats the funny part, we're both wrong..accord to Kapl??shocked

  #4

c hysteroscopy??first

  #5

cirus is there any explanation given why hysteroscopy after biopsy ???? after diagnosis is made ....

  #6

How was the polyp found? I'm assuming it was located on hysteroscopy. Any atypical cells found on endometrial biopsy should be treated with hysterectomy in a post menopausal woman as adenocarcinoma risk is great.

  #7

Hey guys is kaplan so chill down

Answer is Histerectomy

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