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Author14 Posts
  #1

a blood gr O ,Rh -ve women is preganant with her first child.she has a negative antibody screen and no previous administration of Rh immune globulin.she delivers a blood group A,Rh + baby .the baby develops unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia 8 hours after birth.which of the following statements correctly describes this case--
A. she is Rh compatible with her baby
B.she is ABO compatible with her baby.
C. she is a cadidaate for Rh immunoglobulin.
D.negative direct coombs of baby's cord blood.
E. nothing needs to be done to avoid complications in future pregnancies

  #2

C ?

  #3

it has to be D.....and if not then C

it cannot be A, bos mother is Rh-ve and child is Rh+ve

it cannot be B, bcos mother is O gp and child is A.

can be C....but if 72 hrs have passed there is no use of giving the Rh immunisation.

in baby we do direct coombs test to find out whether child has developed any damage from the mothers antibodies.....but since this is the first exposure........no antibodies have escaped into the fetal blood...so we have negative direct coombs test.
indirect comms is done in suspected mothers who can in future can harm their fetus...so it indirectly checks the possible chance of damage to the fetus by maternal antibody response.

E is definately wrong as mother has to have a prenatal counselling and have an estimate of probable risk of development of possible complications....

  #4

plz post the explaination also.....
the easiest is not always the least difficultwinkwink

  #5

before i post the ans
O -ve person has anti A and anti B , anti AB IgG antibodies right. this can cross the placenta and can cause hemolysis right, whatever may be the incidence.
here i agree that ABO blood group antigen aint as strong as Rh antigen for genrating immunity. but in this case it has been done , the fact that 1 st kid develops hyperbilirubinemia.
again o +ve person has anti A IgM which will ensure that the moment fetal RBCs get in mums blood they will be destroying it.
so there is very remote of negligible chance that she will be sensitised against Rh antigen.
so why not E as ans.


  #6

rh neg women are always sensitised after delivery rh positive baby.

  #7

Dr. goljan says abo incompatibility protects against Rh incompatibility

  #8

?????????????????

what how cud ABO protect against Rh..........
i have to read...............................

so answer is D....??????

  #9

tompat wrote:
Dr. goljan says abo incompatibility protects against Rh incompatibility



nodthat is what I thought when I first saw this q hints.

  #10

it's been given in goljan immuno path that abo incompatibility protects against developing Rh hemolytic disease.
he also mentions the same q at the end of the chapter.
so guys please tell again what u think about this one.
in any case D wont be the ans as we have 1.anti A or
2.if it has to develop anti Rh antibody .
so one of them will cause hemolysis during direct coombs.

  #11

hey tompat even i read that......goljan has a different opinion than us....but he has a valid point.....
i give u example.....
what does the IgD immunisation does to the mother?????
it kills the sensitised RBCs...and prevent them from being read by memory cells...so,no further response........

now what goljan says?????
he says that in case of ABO incompatibility the mother already has antibodies against the respective antigen of fetus....might be A,B or both.....
now these preform antibodies also act against the RBC coated with D antigen......if anyhow they are formed...
so moment they come in contact the get killed by the same mechanism....

only difference is the the former was done actively and latter pasively.

tell me did it help u????
as this was my way of interpretation....smiling face

  #12

according to me....the answer can be C or even D......
why not D....
let me explain,
she has concieved for the first time.....
only thing happened is leakage of fetal blood into maternal circulation
that means mother didnt have any preformed anti RhD in her blood.....
so no passage of any IgG into the fetus.....
so no antibody coated RBC in the fetus......
so NEGATIVE coombs test..........

plz tell me if am wrongsmiling face

  #13

hi drduck,
as u said above, the only diff is the former happened actively and later happened passively, let me tell u something,in this case jaundice is produced in the new born cause of ABO anti bodies.the fact that it occured in first pregnancy and it is not mentioned in q stem that there was any feto-meternal bleed.
now mother has anti A IgG aND IgM anti bodies as her blood group is O. here IgG is causing the cross placental hemolysis and IgM taking care of fetal RBCs coming in maternal blood. now IgM will destroy fetal blood cells with D antigen before they are processed and presented to memory cells . this is the only mechanism by which we can think that ABO incompatibility protects against Rh sensitization.
again coombs test is not exclusively for Rh ANtibody. it detects any antibody present against RBCs or whether rbcs have that antigen which a test sera can hemolys.
the fact that anti A IgG are present on fetal rbc's will make the direct coombs positive.
here when pt's RBCs are washed they will still have anti A IgG antibodies attached to them , after adding known antisera they will get hemolysed making the test positive.

  #14

thankx........tompat,
good job....smiling face

i forgot about preformed antibodies of IgG class........yes coombs will be positive......







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