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Author5 Posts
  #1

Good question first i will eliminate hypothyroidism choice b because her tsh is normal then i can eliminate choice c pituitary adenoma because prolactin level is normal i can also eliminate choice d polycystic ovarian disease because the lh would be higher than the fsh here theey are almost the same i can eliminate choice f tubal factor since she was treated for an infection already i do not think it is choice a either hypothalamic disorder therefore i go for choice e premature avarian failure because her fsh is high and lh is high

  #2

lh fsh depend on menstrual status, don't think high
previous infection history imply adhesive complication

  #3

I go with premature ovarian failure
if it was tubal factor, so why infrequent menses, progressively?! It means the ovaries have been acting like someone in premenopause and finally menopause in this case

  #4

Dear Webjee

You are right on LH and FSH depend on menstrual status. Normally it is between 4-30 but in mid-cycle it can peaks to 10-90 but in this particular case this woman has her previous mentruation 6 weeks ago ,I don ' t think that she is in her MID -CYCLE which only can rule out why her FSH is high

The fact that is FSH is higher than normal and she has mentrual irregularities lead us to some hormonal cause like :

E ) Premature Ovarian Failure


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  #5

E too

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