new_n_lost
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A 42 yr old woman presents to the physician with headaces and bitemporal hemianopia that is most severe inthe upper visual fields. the pateint says that she stopped menstruating 9 mnths agon, which she attributes to " going through menopause". Laboratory values are notbale for a serum glucose level of 44 mg/dL and a serum calcium level of 12.3 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this cluster of findings ?
A. Falx Meninigioma
B. MEN I
C. MEN IIA
D. MEN III
E. Pituitary Adenoma
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| Addicudo
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B. MEN I
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| Addicudo
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Patarthyroid cuts them in to MEN I and MEN II a ... But Ammenorhea (Hyperprolactinemia ) .. plus the Pitutary stuff (Visual abnor) makes it go to MEN I .. also .. Hypoglycemia .. (Pancreas) Makes it a MEN i .. !! Def .. !! 
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| lq2006
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B. MEN I
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| Luckyall
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 ready to go Addicudo, yeap, MEN I big time !
GL on your exam !!!!!!!
You are well prepared !
Edited by Luckyall on 05/28/07 - 08:12 PM
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| new_n_lost
Politically InCorrect
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Bang on Target Addicudo !!!!!!!!!!
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FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."
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| new_n_lost
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Good explanation as well
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FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."
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| rock
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well i guess i need to read these syndromes again...got confused between men1 and men2a and choose the wrong one
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