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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author6 Posts
  #1

1) A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician
because of increasing
low back pain for 2 days. She is a daily intravenous
drug user. She
has a history of pyelonephritis, abscesses at
injection sites, and
pelvic inflammatory disease. Her temperature is 39 C
(102.2 F), blood
pressure is 130/70 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and
respirations are 20/min.
Examination shows warm, dry skin, a supple neck, and
no jugular venous
distention. There is tenderness over L4. Pelvic
examination shows mild
erythema around the cervical os and scant discharge;
there is no adnexal
or cervical motion tenderness. Her hematocrit is 30%,
leukocyte count
is 10,600/mm3, and serum glucose level is 110 mg/dL.
Urinalysis is
within normal limits. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next
step in management?

A
) Echocardiography

B
) Renal ultrasonography

C
) MRI of the back

D
) Colposcopy

E
) Laparoscopy



  #2

C MRI of the back cz she might have epidural abscess


  #3

(C) MRI of the back
Vertebral body osteomyelitis

___________________
Don't live in a town where there are no doctors

  #4

MRI

___________________
You know my creds........

  #5

D. Colposcopy. For cervical cancer

  #6

main complaint is about her back, so do mri of back to r/o infxn







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