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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author10 Posts
  #1

. A healthy 24-year-old woman comes for a routine health maintenance examination. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 to 6 days. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She takes no medications. Bimanual examination shows a 5-cm, mildly tender left adnexa. A pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A
) Repeat examination in 2 weeks

B
) Measurement of serum CA 125 level

C
) Measurement of serum a-fetoprotein level

D
) CT scan of the pelvis

E
) Diagnostic laparoscopy




___________________
syra

  #2

A - mass smaller than 7 cm can be expectantly managed, but should be evaluated by ultrasound first.
It looks like luteal cyst

  #3

i also picked A
but the mass is mildly tender.thats what confused me.

___________________
syra

  #4

i would go with D, to confirm the nature of the mass, whether its simple or complex.

if its simple then we can re examine again in 2 weeks provided:
its less then 7cm
pt was NOT on prior contraception.

if its complex, then laproscopy or laporotomy, dependin on whats the avaiable choice.

  #5

steroid contraception *

  #6

A. A mass less than 7 cm need not be investigated.

  #7

i'm also thinking about D as the mass is tender.

___________________
syra

  #8

chinda11 i totally agree with the fact that mass less than 7cm needs no investigation but one has to confirm the nature of it, and v cant simply comment on that without some imaging technique

  #9

I think we can wait for 2 weeks before any imaging technique coz if its leuteal cyst it will go away amnd after 2 weeks if it remains we can start with CT ...

even though its mildly tender we can wait that much I think...


  #10

A







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