sera
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31. An 18-year-old man comes to the physician 1 week after he had a blood pressure of 140/110 mm Hg during a routine precollege examination. His temperature is 37.1 C (98.7 F), blood pressure is 140/100 mm Hg, pulse is 92/min, and respirations are 12/min. The upper extremities appear to be more muscular than the lower extremities. Radial pulses are normal; femoral, posterior tibial, and dorsalis pedis pulses are decreased. A grade 2/6 systolic murmur is heard over the precordium, anterior chest, and back. An ECG shows left ventricular hypertrophy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A ) Limiting physical activity
B ) Repeat blood pressure measurement in 1 month
C ) Initiate a low-sodium diet and exercise program
D ) Pharmacologic management
E ) Operative treatment
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syra
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| vradojc1
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We had this one - it is surgery. BP is not so high that it requires pre-op lowering so he can proceed directly to OR. It is coarctation.
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| doc_clotaire
Forum Guru
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Yeap , Answer is E 
This patient has long standing hypertension shown on EKG ( LVH ) secondary to Coartation Aorta
Long standing HTA is a direct indication for Surgery
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| Justice
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E ) Operative treatment
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| star1
Forum Guru
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Primary coarctation ... surgery
recurrent coarctation... balloon angioplasty
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| sera
Forum Senior
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E
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syra
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| Ivonne
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Aortic coarctation-------> E
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| drshvetasm
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E
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| Vietnamese
Forum Elite
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Typically Aortic Coartation
E.
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