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Author7 Posts
  #1

2. A 67-year-old woman is evaluated because of intermittent lower back pain of 4 weeks' duration. The pain is dull, nonradiating, and nonpositional, and is unrelated to meals or exertion.
On physical examination, blood pressure is 145/85 mm Hg, and heart rate is 86/min and regular. Abdominal examination shows a midline pulsatile mass. No spinal or costovertebral angle tenderness is noted. Distal pulses are normal.
Abdominal ultrasound shows a 4.8-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm that originates from the celiac trunk and extends below the renal arteries.

Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

( A ) Follow-up ultrasound in 6 months
( B ) Follow-up ultrasound in 12 months
( C ) Hospitalization and vascular surgery
( D ) Lumbar spine magnetic resonance imaging
( E ) Simvastatin

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First Aid is my Bible...

  #2

( C ) Hospitalization and vascular surgery



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The elevator to succes is broke ,you must take the stairs

  #3

Although size (4.8) is not a direct indication to surgery in this Pt, the localization of aneurysm demands prompt ( C ) Hospitalization and vascular surgery

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The winner takes it all...

  #4

Thanks justice, you made it clear for me.

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Past is a history. Tomorrow is a mystery. What you have today is gift of God- that is why it is called present. Enjoy it...

  #5

c

  #6

C C C Cgringrin

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" You Are Limited Only By What You Think "

  #7

Indication for operation:

-Rupture

-Symptomatic aneurysm (Epigastric pain ,back pain )

-Rapid expansion

-Asymptomatic > 5 cm – exact lower limit controversial










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