arlete
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A 19-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the emergency department because of severe left lower quadrant pain. She has been noticing this pain intermittently for the past 3 days, but this afternoon it became persistent and severe and was accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Examination shows left lower quadrant tenderness and a tender left adnexal mass. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a 7 cm left ovarian complex mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Expectant management
B. Follow-up ultrasound in 6 weeks
C. Intravenous antibiotics
D. Laparoscopy
E. Oophorectomy
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Que sera sera, whatever will be will be.
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| vradojc1
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D - complex mass in that age group has to go out. The issue is with preservation of the ovary since she is still young. So laparoscopy and cystectomy should be attempted. If it doesn't work, it can easily be converted into oophorectomy.
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| sweetybokhari
Forum Elite
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D-LAPAROSCOPY
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| elissaUK
Forum Newbie
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Agree D - Lap
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| yasmeen
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laparoscopy
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| arlete
Half way there!
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Clap! Clap! Clap!
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