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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author6 Posts
  #1

This is a question from NBME.



A 72-year-old man w/ hypertension has had increasingly severe back pain over the past 2 months. He had a MI 4 years ago. He has marked tenderness over T11, T12, L1 and L2. An X-ray film of the lumbosacral spine shows osteoblastic lesions in these vertebrae, Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A Abdominal aneurysm
B Fibrosarcoma
C Metastatic prostate carcinoma
D Multiple myeloma
E Osteosarcoma


Please explain.
(My personal answer is C, but I saw other people choose differently)

  #2

I think you are right, this is (C)

(A) would not cause blastic lessions
(B)&(E) would not target multiple vertebrae
(D) is usually associated with lytic lessions

Other opinions are welcome
grin

Plus positive age...

___________________
Don't live in a town where there are no doctors

  #3

I would go with C also because :

Any old man who present with back pain , you must suspect prostate cancer untill proven otherwise and the metastic lesion finding are most likely osteoblastic

Multiple Myeloma can also cause back pain but the lesion would be osteoclastic rather than osteoblastic

The other ones are ruled out because of X-Ray findings

Any more inputs are WELCOME !




___________________
The elevator to succes is broke ,you must take the stairs

  #4

Metastatic prostate carcinoma

  #5

Agree

___________________
FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #6

All right, case closed.







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