new_n_lost
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A 27 year-old male presents with 3 months of difficulty walking. Examination reveals motor weakness of left leg in a pyramidal distribution with increase in tone. Impaired pinprick sensation of right leg extending into the groin.
What is the cause of these signs?
1) A central cauda equina lesion.
2) A cervical spinal cord lesion.
3) A foramen magnum lesion.
4) A left sided thoracic spinal cord lesion.
5) Bilateral cerebral hemisphere lesions.
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| mytime
Kick my butt!
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A long stretch.........3. coz u say incresed tone. I'm sure that can't be a b/l so
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| new_n_lost
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 Nobody Answers n So many Views Cmon Guys SHOW UR GUTS
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FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."
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| salmonella
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i think 4
as ipsilat corticospinal and contralat spinothalamic.
second spinothalamic affects 2 or 3 levels below so lumbar innervation
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| new_n_lost
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 Spot On Salmonella
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FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."
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| new_n_lost
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The history suggests Brown-Sequard syndrome produced by a hemisection of the spinal cord. The clinical presentation is that of ipsilateral weakness and a loss of position and vibration below the lesion, with contralateral loss of pain and temperature.
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FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."
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| mytime
Kick my butt!
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 AYE AYE AYE AYE YAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAa!
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| alb123
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its 4.. classic for contralateral loss of pain and temperature and ipsalateral hemiparesis
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