sprint123
Forum Guru
Topics: 129
Posts: 870
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A 20-year-old woman has developed low-grade fever, a malar rash,
and arthralgias of the hands over several months. High titers of anti-DNA
antibodies are noted, and complement levels are low. The patient’s white
blood cell count is 3000/μL, and platelet count is 90,000/μL. The patient
is on no medications and has no signs of active infection. Which of the following
statements is correct?
a. If glomerulonephritis, severe thrombocytopenia, or hemolytic anemia develops,
high-dose glucocorticoid therapy would be indicated
b. Central nervous system symptoms will occur within 10 years
c. The patient can be expected to develop Raynaud’s phenomenon when exposed
to cold
d. The patient will have a false-positive test for syphilis
e. The disease process described is an contraindication to pregnancy
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| Justice
Just signed contract
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Posts: 2,369
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(A)
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| mdwannabe
Forum Guru
Topics: 37
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Very confusing picture:
the disease seems to be somewhat active since complement levels are low, but Anti-DNA titers are high, so the disease is not at the top of the activity, therefore, Pregnancy is allowed, it is contraindicated if Dzz is very active or dzz controll has been acieved less than 6 moths prior
Most patients with SLE will develop Raynaud's... but would you EXPECT her to have it... probable not
when organ systems become involved especially CNS or Renal...high dose 1mg/kg of steroids is indicated, therefore...
i think A is in fact correct answer.
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