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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author8 Posts
  #1

A 40 year-old right-handed man complained of dysfunction in his right arm of about 6 month's duration. Onset was gradual and associated with slurring of speech, shaking of his left hand during use, and coughing and sputtering when swallowing liquids. His father and brother had similar symptoms: after 10 years, his father became confined to a wheelchair. The patient has never consumed alcohol.The general physical exam and mental status were normal. Speech was dysarthric. Coarse nystagmus was evoked by conjugate gaze in any direction. Smooth pursuit was abnormal and saccades were dysmetric. Sensory exam was normal. Tone was mildly diminished in all limbs. No resting tremor was noted, but there was a side-to-side intention tremor of both hands, right greater than left. There was minimal difficulty with the heel-to-shin maneuver. Rhythmic hand motions were decomposed (i.e. the patient exhibited dysdiadochokinesis). Muscle strength and muscle stretch reflexes were normal. Babinski's sign was not present. Gait was somewhat broadbased and unsteady.

Localize the lesion or lesions and What is the likely diagnosis in this case?


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"Deh Shiva Var Mohe Ahey ,Shubh Karman Te Kabhun Na Tarun ,Na Darun Arson Jab Jaye Laroon, Nischey Kar Apni Jeet Karoon"

  #2

It’s clearly a movement disorder. Highly doubt it involves the basal ganglia, seems like ceebellar dysfunction.

My opinion would be inherited multiple sclerosis that have affected the cerebellum. Precise localization is not certain, but hey, do an MRI scan and check the cerebellum as well as the whole brain.

His mental status is normal now but the case doesn’t tell how his father’s and his brother’s mental status progresses.

The reason for my diagnosis upon the info I was given is that it doesn’t cope with the diseases affecting the basal ganglia with similar symptoms, namely Parkinson and Huntington. You don’t get diagnosed Parkinson at age 40 unless you take drugs, and they have resting tremors. Yes, I have a slight suspect of Huntington and I would certainly ask him about the history of his father and brother, without this info I would say it’s more likely to be cerebellum dysfunction and everything he has copes with the triad – dysequilibrium, hypotonia, dyssynergia (i.e. dysmetria, intention tremor, nystagmus, DDK)… he has them all…


Edited by Jackofknives on 04/04/07 - 06:10 AM

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There are many things in this world that can’t be changed no matter how hard you try. That’s why you must not hesitate when the time comes where you have to give it all you’ve got.

  #3

Although i have to Agree it looks more like MS picture but MS is not An Inherited diseasen then nothing else in my limited Knowldge fits the Description,


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FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #4

a Very Long Shot Olivopontocerebellar ataxia same symtoms more or less with AD inheritence. but the difference being the presence of Babinski's Sign.

Edited by new_n_lost on 04/04/07 - 06:32 AM

___________________
FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #5

Aha NNL is on to something...

___________________
There are many things in this world that can’t be changed no matter how hard you try. That’s why you must not hesitate when the time comes where you have to give it all you’ve got.

  #6

well guyzs good,good shots by jackofknives welldone...!

answer--

lesions---->The intention tremor, dysdiadochokinesis, dysmetria, dysarthria and hypotonia all suggest cerebellar hemispheric involvement and the broad-based gait is indicative of some midline (cerebellar vermis) dysfunction.The physical findings suggest a diffuse or multifocal involvement of the cerebellar hemispheres with some involvement of midline cerebellar structures as well.

Diagnosis--->Given the strongly positive family history, indolent onset pattern and predominant pattern of cerebellar hemispheric dysfunction, the most likely diagnosis is a familial cerebellar or spinocerebellar degenerative process,( which could be MS too but not mentioned anything in HOPI(histroy of present illness) or anamnesis morbi.

could be MS b/c its associated with cerebellar symptoms but in this case no such history...like nnl said

other diseases associted with cerebellar syptoms could be--

Rostral vermis syndrome due to chronic alcoholism

Intoxications

Posterior circulation vascular disease

Multiple sclerosis

Neoplasm

Paraneoplastic autoimmune syndromes

Infections or autoimmune post-infectious syndromes

Developmental abnormalities of the cerebellum

Metabolic derangements (such as aminoaciduria or hypothyroidism)




___________________
"Deh Shiva Var Mohe Ahey ,Shubh Karman Te Kabhun Na Tarun ,Na Darun Arson Jab Jaye Laroon, Nischey Kar Apni Jeet Karoon"

  #7

KG u had me l;iterally thinking my brains off i had list of thses disorders but each of them is nullified by one simple fact

AGE
INHERITENCE
MUSCLE REFLEX NORMAL NO SPASICITY/ BABINSKI'S NORMAL

there is no way of getting a pin point one on this let alone on History. there were only 2 closest matches apart from MS a Inherited MEtabolic disease with a degree of Penetrance or a Ventricular Mass .


___________________
FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #8

grin sorry for the confusion nnl

Edited by keepgoing on 04/05/07 - 05:35 AM

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"Deh Shiva Var Mohe Ahey ,Shubh Karman Te Kabhun Na Tarun ,Na Darun Arson Jab Jaye Laroon, Nischey Kar Apni Jeet Karoon"







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