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Author7 Posts
  #1


A 54-year-old white male presents with gradual onset of mild dementia, ataxic gait, and startle myoclonus. An MRI scan is normal, and an examination of his cerebrospinal fluid reveals no abnormalities, but the patient's EEG is remarkable for recurrent bursts of high-voltage slow waves. Over the next 6 months, the patient's dementia rapidly worsens, accompanied by general hypertonicity and profound dysarthria. The patient dies shortly thereafter. Whichof the following is the mostly likely neuropathological finding on autopsy?

A. Cerebellar hyperplasia

B. Diffuse spongiform change

C. Multiple lacunar infarcts

D. Negri bodies

E. Neurofibrillary tangles


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God,be my strength.

  #2

B

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mediocricity aint my style

  #3

Absolutely Classical Changes n PResentation of Prion Related Disorders esp CJD

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"never argue with a fool, they'll bring you down to their level and beat you with experience" FORUM RULES-- Those who believe in telekinesis, raise my hand. I get enough exercise just by pushing my luck --P4U World.." The pure and simple truth is rarely pure and never simple."

  #4

B.

  #5

nodnod B

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God,be my strength.

  #6

Heh this s something I havnt learned in med school nor read about in the books. Prevalence 1 in a million, ggg, awesome enough.

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There are many things in this world that can’t be changed no matter how hard you try. That’s why you must not hesitate when the time comes where you have to give it all you’ve got.

  #7

B.









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