ling
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of a 1-day history of vomiting, headache, and weakness. One month ago, she underwent resection of an astrocytoma and placement of a ventriculoatrial shunt for residual hydrocephalus; her postoperative course had been uncomplicated. Currently, she is drowsy and irritable. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), blood pressure is 126/54 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, and respirations are 24/min. Funduscopic examination shows papilledema. Reflexes are brisk with hypertonia in the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism for these symptoms?
A ) Carcinomatous infiltration of cerebrospinal fluid
B ) Malfunction of ventriculoatrial shunt
C ) Overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid from a choroid plexus papilloma
D ) Recurrence and extension of the astrocytoma
E ) Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus
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| robin082006
Forum Hero
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B ) Malfunction of ventriculoatrial shunt
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| fongch
Forum Elite
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Agree.
She has signs of elevated intracranial pressure.
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| webjeee
Forum Guru
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is E ) Thrombosis of the superior sagittal sinus possible?
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| klimt
Forum Guru
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I go with B
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