DrVirgo
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A 35 year old healthy man comes to the ED because of a 4-hour history of severe abdominal pain. The pain had initially started in the periumblical area, but has now shifted to the RLQ. He also felt nauseated and vomited twice. He had no previous surgeries. His temperature is 38.9C (102F), blood pressure is 125/80mm Hg, Pulse is 100/min, and resp: 20/min. Examination shows tenderness in the right lower quadrant and rovsing's sign is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Ultrasound of the abdomen
B. CT scan of the abdomen
C. Conservative management
D. Immediate surgery
E. Watchful waiting
What is his diagnosis?
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| robin082006
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D. Immediate surgery
Acute appendicitis
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| DrVirgo
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Right. 
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| Justice
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(D)
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| damngood
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immediate surgery D
appendicitis is a clinical diagnosis
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