| Author | 5 Posts |
dr_jojo
|
Six months after the delivery of her fourth
child, a 37-year-old
woman undergoes laparoscopic tubal ligation. Menses
occur at regular
28-day intervals. During the operation, she is found
to have a small
dark lesion in the cul-de-sac and filmy adhesions
surrounding the
ovaries. A biopsy specimen of a cul-de-sac lesion
confirms the diagnosis of
endometriosis. Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step
in management?
A
) Danazol therapy
B
) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist therapy
C
) Oral contraceptive therapy
D
) Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral
salpingo-oophorectomy
E
) No further treatment indicated
|
| robin082006
Forum Hero
Topics: 471
Posts: 5,123
|
E--> No further treatment indicated
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The Key to Succeed is Patience.
|
| damngood
Forum Newbie
Topics: 0
Posts: 79
|
is it not b
why dosent she need treatment
she still has a long sexual cycle and endometriosis can cause dysparuenia and bleeding as well
|
| vradojc1
Forum Elite
Topics: 21
Posts: 309
|
but she has no symptoms
you still don't treat preemptively
|
| mdwannabe
Forum Guru
Topics: 37
Posts: 1,133
|
agree with no treatment... No smx...no worries...
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