NBME 2 Q

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NBME 2 Q

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dr_jojo

03/20/07 - 10:25 AM

15.) A 24-year-old man is hospitalized for treatment of a posterior dislocation of the
right knee sustained in a motorcycle collision. Six hours after closed reduction,
previously present distal pulses in his foot are absent, but the foot has remained
warm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Elevation of the limb and observation for 24hours

B) Nitroprusside therapy

C) Sympathetic block

D) Femoral arteriography

E) Embolectomy with a Fogarty catheter through aproximal arteriotomy

D) Inflammation of the origin of the plantar fascia

robin082006
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03/20/07 - 10:43 AM

D) Femoral arteriography

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92306
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03/20/07 - 01:25 PM

D) Femoral arteriography

???the foot has remained warm ????

robin082006
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03/20/07 - 04:21 PM

this q is almost exactly a q in UW and Kap qbank. I am sure with D because both qbanks have the same answer.

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Aashi
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03/20/07 - 06:10 PM

Do a FEMORAL ARTERIOGRAPHY----->popliteal artery can be injured in most of the cases with posterior dislocation of the knee,even if the dislocation is corrected,probably the artery was ignored or not repaired properly,just a warm leg on P.EX with NO PULSE in the distal,doesnt mean that the leg can be observed..u can save a leg from gettin amputated by doin a simple P.EX and doing the right tests at the right time..

GL wink

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dr_jojo

03/21/07 - 02:43 AM

right , thanx robin , Aashi for ur help

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