 |  NBME with explanation plz
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| Author | 7 Posts |
dr_jojo
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. A 42-year-old man comes for a routine health maintenance examination. There is no family history of coronary artery disease, and he does not smoke. His weight is appropriate for his height. His blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. Serum lipid studies show a total cholesterol level of 190 mg/dL, HDL-cholesterol level of 40 mg/dL, and triglyceride level of 150 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A
) Recommend the Step 2 National Cholesterol Education Program diet
B
) Measure serum LDL-cholesterol level now
C
) Measure total serum cholesterol level in 5 years
D
) Prescribe prophylactic aspirin
E
) Begin treatment with lovastatin
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| hatim gemil
Forum Newbie
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I thank it's A or b
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| Aashi
Forum Moderator
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C) Measure total serum cholesterol level in 5 years
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| robin082006
Forum Hero
Topics: 471
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B, measure now.
Screening LDL if >35 yo in males and 45 in females (Kaplan)
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| huyniid
Forum Elite
Topics: 9
Posts: 199
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C. His cholesterol total is normal (<200) and HDL is on the lower limit (40). TG is on the upper limit. The recommendation to do further screening is total cholesterol > 240, HDL < 40, or the pts had intermediate risks of CVS. (NCEPIII)
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| dr in trouble
Forum Guru
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I will go with B
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| eaguin
Forum Senior
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Posts: 162
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I think is C, everything is normal
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