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dr_jojo

03/10/07 - 12:44 PM             #1

A 13-year-old girl is brought for a well-child examination. Menses have occurred every other month since menarche 10 months ago. Her last menstrual period was 1 week ago. She is not sexually active. Sexual development is Tanner stage 3. Examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A
) Discussion of pregnancy prevention

B
) Measurement of serum luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormone levels

C
) Urine β-hCG test

D
) Pelvic examination

E
) Estrogen therapy

F
) Diagnostic laparoscopy




dr_jojo

03/10/07 - 12:44 PM             #2

AND WHY , PLZ

huyniid
Forum Elite

Topics: 9
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03/10/07 - 01:44 PM             #3

A. She has nothing to do with further Dx or intervention, so the best choice is education for the new thing: Preg prevention which may occur to her in the future after her puberty



robin082006
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03/10/07 - 01:46 PM             #4

A, this has been discussed

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eaguin
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03/11/07 - 06:23 PM             #5

A

damngood
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03/29/07 - 12:13 PM             #6

A







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