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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author8 Posts
  #1

. Three days after being hospitalized for treatment of a hip fracture sustained in a fall, a 62-year-old woman becomes acutely short of breath and coughs up a small amount of blood-tinged sputum. She appears anxious. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 24/min. Examination shows no other abnormalities. Arterial blood gas analysis on 40% oxygen by face mask shows:

pH 7.40
PCO2 38 mm Hg
PO2 70 mm Hg

Ventilation-perfusion lung scans show multiple segmental areas of mismatch on the right. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A
) Pulmonary angiography

B
) Dopamine therapy

C
) Heparin therapy

D
) Urokinase therapy

E
) Intubation




  #2

Heparin

  #3

C) Heparin therapy



  #4

I know that if there's still confusion about the diagnosis of PE after the V/Q exam, we should do the angiography to confirm..

As there are obvious mismatch & depending on the history ( fracture ....) ,, we should start treatment immediately with Heparin


___________________
I will not say I failed 1000 times.. I will say that I discovered there are 1000 ways that can cause failure ..

  #5

thanx




  #6

C
) Heparin therapy

  #7

yes its Heparin theray. What is the treatment of fat embolism????????

___________________
If u want to do something, do it today as there is no tomorrow.

  #8

c







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