 |  NBME ,1, Think with me plz
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| Author | 6 Posts |
dr_jojo
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. A 3-year-old girl is brought to the physician after her mother noted blood on her underpants. Examination shows genital condylomata acuminata in the perineal, peri-introital, labial, and anal areas. Some of the pedunculated condylomata appear to have caused the bleeding. She has no visible intravaginal condylomata or vaginal or anal tears. Her mother has a palmar wart on her hand but no history of condylomata acuminata. Her mother has a boyfriend who does not live with them and who has never been left alone with the girl. They live with the mother's 27-year-old brother who only baby-sits the children when they are asleep. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A
) Psychiatric assessment of the mother
B
) DNA typing of the mother's palmar wart for papillomavirus
C
) Treatment of the mother's palmar wart
D
) Vaginal, anal, and throat cultures for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in the child
E
) Laser therapy of the condylomata acuminata in the child
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| huyniid
Forum Elite
Topics: 9
Posts: 199
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Child Abuse --> D
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| robin082006
Forum Hero
Topics: 471
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D
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The Key to Succeed is Patience.
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| NE
Forum Guru
Topics: 53
Posts: 504
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D, is child abuse and actually the next step is to call the Child protection.
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| dr in trouble
Forum Guru
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I will go for D.
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If u want to do something, do it today as there is no tomorrow.
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| fongch
Forum Elite
Topics: 71
Posts: 316
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I will go for D too, but someone think E is the next step. Not sure.
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