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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author2 Posts
  #1

A 70 yo M is brought to the ER for altered mentation. His daughter found him lying unconscious on the apt floor. The paramedics intubated the pt and transported him to the ER. He has a long standing Hx of HTN and DM. Meds includes glipizide, metformine, and amlodipine. Both his BP and Glu levels have been under good control. On arrival ER, The pt undergoes an MRI of the head, which shows 3 intracranial hemorrhages: 2 in the left temporal region and 1 in the left parietal region. All of the hemorrhages are in the cortex. There is no involvement of the basal ganglia, thalamus or pons.
What is the most likely etiology of the pt's intracranial hemorrhage:

A. Amlodipine induced cerebral hemorrhage
B. Amyloid angiopathy
C. CNS vasculitis
D. Coagulopathy
E. Hypertensive hemorrhage
F. Idiopathic causes


  #2

long-term diabetes--->B. Amyloid angiopathy

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