Ancylostoma
Forum Guru
Topics: 42
Posts: 636
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A 23-year-old man is admitted to the hospital through the emergency department with probable appendicitis. He has been having right lower
quadrant abdominal pain for several days, which has been becoming increasingly worse. His temperature 39.2 C (102.6 F), blood pressure
is 80/40 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, and respirations are 35/min. The abdomen is rigid with guarding. Multiple petechiae and purpura are
present, and the patient is oozing blood from his oral mucosa. According to the patient's wife, he has not had bleeding problems in the past.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following findings on screening laboratory tests would be most consistent with the probable diagnosis?
/ A. Decreased platelet count, increased prothrombin time, increased activated partial thromboplastin time
/ B. Increased platelet count, increased prothrombin time, normal activated partial thromboplastin time
/ C. Increased platelet count, normal prothrombin time, increased activated partial thromboplastin time
/ D. Normal platelet count, increased prothrombin time, increased activated partial thromboplastin time
/ E. Normal platelet count, normal prothrombin time, normal activated partial thromboplastin time
I know theses are not that hard but atleast they have been posted, explanation is always needed. Look at the other question I posted.
Edited by Ancylostoma on 02/04/07 - 08:36 PM
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| new_n_lost
Forum Hero
Topics: 724
Posts: 6,390
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Alright its my guess that this guy is having vonWillibrand disease
Choice A ??
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| darkhorse
Forum Elite
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Posts: 275
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i think this patient is in septic shock with DIC.....aaaaaaaa
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| Ancylostoma
Forum Guru
Topics: 42
Posts: 636
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Thats right, it is a. His appendicitis leads to peritonitis and septic shock. Septic shock is a common cause of DIC. He will probably end up with ards as well.
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