robin082006
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A 17-year-old Caucasian male presents to your office with fever and abdominal pain. The illness started one week ago with mid-abdominal pain and nausea, but he tried not to pay attention, and continued his usual activities. During the last two days, the pain became worse. It is now localized to the right iliac fossa and impairs walking. The patient had two episodes of vomiting during the last several hours. His temperature is 39.4C (103F), blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 18/min. A tender iliac fossa mass is palpated on the right side. The rest of the abdomen has no rigidity or guarding. Which of the following is the best management for this patient?
A. Immediate surgery
B. IV hydration, erythromycin and metronidazole
C. IV hydration, tetracycline and metronidazole
D. IV hydration and cefotetan
E. Ciprofloxacin and vancomycin
F. IV hydration and observation
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| sarika
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missed appendicitis D. IV hydration and cefotetan
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| fox
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agree
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| paviraj
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IT IS APPENDICULAR ABSCESS. Y NOT FLUIDS & OBSERVATION. PLEASE ANS ROBINO
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| webjeee
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what is the answer robin
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| robin082006
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Sarika is right, D is answer
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| paviraj
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Appendicular lump - conservative ochsner -sherren regimen. I.V. fluids, antibiotics, I/o chart etc.
o.k. got it.
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| amkhit
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its a Classical Appendicular mass not an abscess. so oschner scherren regime. Apendicular Abscesses need drainaige.
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| Sayulita
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| akanke
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Pls what diff btw app mass fr abscess
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| ashfaque
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A) its appendicular abcess as 1wk history, rising temp, and pulse 90b/min, so immediate drainage is required.
appendicular lump is formed after 72 hrs, and pt is usually not so toxic
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