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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author9 Posts
  #1

A 53-year-old Caucasian female is admitted to the ER with hypotension. Her condition is considered very serious, and invasive hemodynamic monitoring is established. Blood pressure measured by intra-arterial method is 72/46 mmHg. Her heart rate is 120/min, regular. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) estimated using Swan-Ganz catheter is 6 mmHg. Mixed venous oxygen concentration (MVo2) is 16 vol% (N = 15.5 vol%). Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?


A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Volume depletion
C. Septic shock
D. Volume overload
E. Right ventricular infarction
F. Hemorrhagic shock
G. Neurogenic shock

___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #2

c

___________________
live and let live.

  #3

It 's seems like a cardiogenic shock . I pick A

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The elevator to succes is broke ,you must take the stairs

  #4

it is either vol depletion or septic.smiling face

___________________
live and let live.

  #5

Mixed venous oxygen concentration (MVo2) is 16 vol% (N = 15.5 vol%

this an only be septic shock


  #6

yes answer is C

normal MVO2 and PCWP

___________________
The Key to Succeed is Patience.

  #7

what is the normal pcwp?

___________________
live and let live.

  #8

4-12

  #9

PCWP is supposed to be decreased in this question, so they are not considering 4-12 as the normal range. What normal values do people use for PCWP and right atrial pressure? maybe 10 for PCWP?







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