Aashi
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A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department with shortness of breath and chest tightness. He has a past medical history of nephrotic syndrome and is currently taking prednisone. He just completed a 5-day course of azithromycin for an upper respiratory infection but still has a cough. On physical examination, his temperature is 100.8 F, pulse is 118/min, blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg, and he appears to be in respiratory distress. The lung examination reveals right-sided splinting. The heart examination is normal. Laboratory examination reveals: white blood cell count 16,000/mm3 with 88% neutrophils. An arterial blood gas on room air shows a pH of 7.44, a pCO2 of 32 mm Hg, a pO2 of 79 mm Hg, and a 95% oxygen saturation. The chest x-ray reveals atelectasis and a right lower lobe infiltrate. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's problem?
(A) Amyloidosis
(B) Focal segmental glomerular sclerosis
(C) Membranous nephropathy
(D) Diabetic nephropathy
(E) Minimal change disease
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| prathapdoctor
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because membranous is the most common cause of nephrotic syn in adults,i will gow with option C.
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| robin082006
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MMC is C membranous glomerulonephritits
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| MDcooper
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memb looks good to me but lung and kidneys?does it cause symptoms in both systems
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| robin082006
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lung problem in this patient due to infection as a complication.
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| Aashi
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Got that right guys 
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