MRMAVERICK
Forum Guru
Topics: 43
Posts: 798
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A 45-year-old man has had vague abdominal pain and nausea for the past 3 years. This pain is unrelieved by antacid medications. He has no difficulty swallowing and no heartburn following meals. On physical examination there are no abnormal findings. Upper GI endoscopy reveals antral mucosal erythema, but no ulcerations or masses. Biopsies are taken, and microscopically there is a chronic non-specific gastritis. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be present in this man?
A Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
B Pernicious anemia
C Helicobacter pylori infection
D Adenocarcinoma
E Crohn disease
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| star1
Forum Guru
Topics: 93
Posts: 827
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A Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
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| hatiifa
Forum Newbie
Topics: 1
Posts: 13
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C. this is antral type of chronic gastritis, associated with h.pylori
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| Palaniappan
Forum Senior
Topics: 30
Posts: 148
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I go with C...Wat's the correct answer??
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| Ancylostoma
Forum Guru
Topics: 42
Posts: 637
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There is only one possible answer, you shouldnt even consider aollinger ellison since it will present with multiple intratable gi ulcers. Chrons disease while it can effect the whole gi is would have a whole plethora of symptoms. While carcnoma usuall presents with a rasied ulcer. Now you have to differentiate between pernicous anemia and gastriti of the pyloric type. Pernicious anemia affects the parietal cells which are primarilyin the fundus and causes fundic type of chronic gastritis, the pyloric type is caused by h pylori. H pylori is linked with three disease , chronic gastritis, gastric adenocarcinoma , and finally duodenal ulcer. Your answer is c
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| drplacebo
Forum Senior
Topics: 6
Posts: 138
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Agreed with ancylostoma....its C
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