kiranmayi
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While on the Medicine service, a third-year medical student admits a 63-year-old woman with longstanding hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. The woman was seen in the emergency room, where she was noted to have vomiting, left–sided Horner's syndrome, and loss of facial sensation on the left, but loss of body sensation on the right. A diffusion-weighted MRI and MRA are ordered. Before the radiologic studies are performed, the team asks the medical student where the problem lies. The best explanation for this patient's stroke presentation is occlusion of which artery?
A. Left middle cerebral artery
B. Right middle cerebral artery
C. Left anterior cerebral artery
D. Right anterior cerebral artery
E. Left posterior cerebral artery
F. Right posterior cerebral artery
G. Left posterior inferior cerebellar artery
H. Right posterior inferior cerebellar artery
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| dxtxpx
Forum Guru
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choice G :?:
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| asmi
Forum Hero
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Can u explain it.
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| auubar
Forum Senior
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I think it is G.
It is in the area of pons where cranial nerve 5,6,7,8 are present,
that is why he has lower motor neurone lesion in these area ( left ), and pyramidal pathway are still not decussated so the other lesion is on the right side.
Honor's syndrome is due to disruption of neurone that descend from the hypothalamus to sympathetic chain.
:?:
auubar
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| kiranmayi
Forum Guru
Topics: 237
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Yes G is correct
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