Prep for USMLEPrep for USMLE Forum
   Forum    Step 1  Step 2 CK Step 2 CS Step 3  Match  IMGs Resources Search






Previous Topic | Next Topic  CVS 9 




 



Author7 Posts
  #1

A 20-year-old primigravida delivers a term baby girl following an uncomplicated pregnancy. No anomalies are noted at the time of birth. Five weeks later, the mother brings the baby to the clinic because she has difficulty breathing and occasionally turns blue. On physical examination a pansystolic murmur is audible. Which of the following congenital cardiac anomalies is most likely to be present in this infant?

A Hypertrophic subaortic stenosis

B Hypoplastic left heart syndrome

C Coarctation of the aorta

D Ventricular septal defect

E Bicuspid aortic valve

___________________
If you plan too much ahead of time, You lose your focus.

  #2

B

  #3

E ?

___________________
My best friends are these Gentlemen :Why & How.

  #4

Could be D; if the baby has Fallot is not mandatory to be cyanotic from the birth. Cyanosis is dependent from pulmonic stenosis.

  #5

(D) CORRECT. The most common cardiac defect is a VSD. The baby may first become symptomatic when the pulmonary arteries dilate after the first month of life and the shunting from left-to-right increases.and VSDs have a typical pan or holosystolic mumur.

___________________
If you plan too much ahead of time, You lose your focus.

  #6

grin
I gueesed the answer but was a much complicated thougth ( and wrong!); I didn't thought is VSD because it's very hard to produce cyanosis after few weeks of life!

  #7

I guessed it ONLY because of the holosystolic murmur .....smiling face Nothing else made sense ...

___________________
If you plan too much ahead of time, You lose your focus.







You don't have permission to post.




Login or Register to post messages in this topic





















Contact | Leaders | Disclaimer | Privacy

Copyright @ Prep for USMLE. All rights reserved.