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Author4 Posts
  #1

A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of intermittent, severe, sharp abdominal pain that occurs primarily after meals and lasts about 30 to 60 minutes. There is no fever, diarrhea, or weight loss. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

A) Acute cholecystitis
B) Ascending cholangitis
C) Biliary colic
D) Primary biliary cirrhosis
E) Sclerosing cholangitis


  #2

i think is C

  #3

smiling face

  #4

itz Cnod

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i m not perfect but i wanna get close to it......







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