recalled
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20-year-old man with new onset of seizures and no history of hypertension is evaluated with a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the head, which demonstrates a mixed parenchymal and subarachnoid hemorrhage. The parenchymal hemorrhage is centered over one cerebral hemisphere. Which of the following is the most likely source of the hemorrhage?
A. Arteriovenous malformation
B. Berry aneurysm
C. Bridging vein
D. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm
E. Middle meningeal artery
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| fox
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C. Bridging Vein?
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Aim High
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| muzammil
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a
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| dr_amarnath
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whats the correct answer ? anbody pls with solid explanation
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| Dr.Papez
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aNSWER IS a
A- young man with predominantly parenchymal hemorrhage-seizures also say that it is predom parenchymal
B-berry aneurysm-always SAH- may have some parenchymal also-but when it so large to produce parenchymal then they always have significant f/o of SAH clinically
C- bridging veins-occur in SDH
D-Charcot buchard- Hypertensive bleed in classical sites-putamen, thalamus
E- MMA- extra durAL HEMATOMOA
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| smal
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A
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remedy for weakness is not brooding over it ,but thinking of strength.
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| recalled
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 yes the answer is A
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| dr_amarnath
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thanks buddy!!
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| ManuNastai
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thanks
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| Ig F
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A....
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i m not perfect but i wanna get close to it......
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