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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author5 Posts
  #1

20-year-old man with new onset of seizures and no history of hypertension is evaluated with a contrast-enhanced CT scan of the head, which demonstrates a mixed parenchymal and subarachnoid hemorrhage. The parenchymal hemorrhage is centered over one cerebral hemisphere. Which of the following is the most likely source of the hemorrhage?
A. Arteriovenous malformation
B. Berry aneurysm
C. Bridging vein
D. Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm
E. Middle meningeal artery :

  #2

b

  #3

B C E are not, 'cause those don't lead to intraparenchimal bleeding

D can lead to parenchimal bleeding, but don't know if it can extend to subarachnoid space..

I have no idea about A.. so A or D

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  #4

answer is A.

  #5

A. Arteriovenous malformation MCC of Mixed type of hemorrhage

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