MDcooper
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A 25 year old caucasian woman,gravida 2,para 1 presents to your office at 20 weeks gestation for a routine prenatal check up.she is known to be D - while her husband is D +.Her obstetric history is significant for intrapartum placental abruption,which didnot require caesarian delivery,She recieved a standard dose of anti-D Ig at 28 weeks of her first pregnancy and immediately post partum.U decideto determine her anti D titers.and they turn out to be 1:34.Which of the following is the most likely explaination of the positive antibody screen in this patient?
A.no prophylaxis early in the pregnancy
B.Too early administration of anti D Ig postpartum
C.low dose of anti D Ig at 28 weeks of her first pregnancy
D.low dose of anti D Ig post partum
E.no prophylaxis between the pregnancies.
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| study_ing
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D. probably the abruption cozed a large fetomaternal hemorrhage. ikt should have been quantitated and teh dose of Ig adusted accordingly.
does any one remember the cut off for a positive rubella titre?
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| MDcooper
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is the q asking that we gave Ig to the mother at 28 weeks and post partum during her first delivery,so this time when the levels are checked,the mother already has immunoglobulins bcz of those Ig given at previous pregnancy.But then we picked post partum verses 28 weeks bcz they were the ones given later????I dont understand what the q is trying to ask?
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| study_ing
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igs are given to prevent isoimmunization. this pt was given rhogam to prevent isoimmunization tas recommended in the previous pregnancy. y did she develop them now? because an insuficient dose was given. ( the ig given prevent ab development against feta antigens. they destroy the RBCs so that they are no ags left for the body to acquire abs against )
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| MDcooper
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oh okay.Now I got it.thanx
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