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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author2 Posts
  #1

A 54-year-old white male presents with gradual onset of mild dementia,
ataxic gait, and startle myoclonus. An MRI scan is normal, and an
examination of his cerebrospinal fluid reveals no abnormalities,
but the patient's EEG is remarkable for recurrent bursts of high-voltage
slow waves. Over the next 6 months, the patient's dementia rapidly
worsens, accompanied by general hypertonicity and profound
dysarthria. The patient dies shortly thereafter. Which of
the following is the mostly likely neuropathological finding
on autopsy?
A. Cerebellar hyperplasia
B. Diffuse spongiform change
C. Multiple lacunar infarcts
D. Negri bodies
E. Neurofibrillary tangles

  #2

B :?:







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