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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author7 Posts
  #1

A 58 year old woman comes to your office. She is currently in atrial fibrillation and is asymptomatic. Her rate is 70/min. She denies hypertension, diabetes, and congestive failure. Ther is no other past medical history. What is the most appropriate management of this patient? A. Warfarin and clopidogrel
B. Heparin followed by warfarin
C. Low-molecular-weight heparin
D. Aspirin (325 mg) daily
E. Warfarin to maintain an INR of 2 to 3



  #2

E

  #3

but Harrison says in patients less than 60 with clear history, treatment is aspirin.

  #4

If she is currently in A-fib,goal is to prevent emboli right?that's how i understood this q?hence i wud stick to warfarin???

  #5

D we discussed this in a q posted by sheeezooo..will post link if i find it.

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  #6

http://www.prep4usmle.com/forum/comments.php?id=4...

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If you yourself are at peace, then there is at least some peace in the world.

  #7

i agree with D,







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