meg
Forum Guru
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A 27-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of nausea and vomiting. Her past medical history includes systemic lupus erthymatosus, vaginal candidal infections, and a treated vertebral stress fracture. A physical exam reveals abdominal striae and a moon face. What condition does she most likely have?
A. Primary hypercortisolism
B. Secondary hypercortisolism
C. Primary hypocortisolism
D. Secondary hypocortisolism
E. Tumor secreting ACTH
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| asmi
Forum Hero
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its B....
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| mahendra
Forum Guru
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why its secondary why not primary?
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| asmi
Forum Hero
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it looks like drug induced to me
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| meg
Forum Guru
Topics: 62
Posts: 806
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Primary means the pathology(for the source) is the gland itself(here adrenal). Secondary means the regulator for the gland(here pituitary ACTH).
The answer is A, primary.
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| asmi
Forum Hero
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can u explain it meg..
I was thinking of secondary cause.. :roll:
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