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Kaplan Qbank USMLE



Author7 Posts
  #1

what is the answer????plz look at the attachment and explain

Attached Files:
未标题.pdf (104 KB, 55 downloads)

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  #2

the patient will develop the disease since he has inherited the dominant allele

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  #3

suv: could you explian a bit? is it the upper line be the dominant allele? it seems that the III-3and IV-1 bear the same line, why 3-3 doesnt have disease but the 4-1 does?

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you may say i am a dreamer,but i am not the only one...........

  #4

if u see, all the members with the dis have the upper fragment, indicating that the upper fragment is the dis-producing allele. don't compare III-2 and III-3 because they are not related. always compare children with parents - so if u look at III-2 and her mother II-3, u'll see that the top fragment is the dis causing allele. and since the fetus has inherited this fragment from the mother and the disease is dominant, the fetus will develop the dis.

  #5

thanks zenith smiling face ok, as you said, always compare children with parents.....now i look at I-1 & II-1, they are father and son and they both share top fragment.but why the son doesnt have the dis? still confusedsad


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you may say i am a dreamer,but i am not the only one...........

  #6

all AD diseases have variable penetrance. ie they produce disease in some and not in some. exception
100% penetrance occur in Adult polycystic kidney dis and familial polyposis.

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  #7

get it smiling face thanks to all

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you may say i am a dreamer,but i am not the only one...........







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