sandra
Forum Guru
Topics: 201
Posts: 470
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A 30-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, comes to
the physician for an infertility evaluation. She has
had amenorrhea for the past year. Menarche occurred at
age 12 years, and pubertal development was normal.
Menstrual periods initially occurred at regular
intervals, but then became erratic after the delivery
of her child 4 years ago. Examination is normal except
for atrophy of the vaginal wall. A pregnancy test is
negative, and a trial of progesterone does not induce
menstruation. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Androgen insensitivity syndrome
B. Gonadal dysgenesis 45,X (Turner syndrome)
C. 21-Hydroxylase deficiency
D. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
E. Premature ovarian failure
F. Pure gonadal dysgenesis (46,XY)
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| laura81
Forum Elite
Topics: 32
Posts: 176
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e?
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| sridevibandaru24
Forum Guru
Topics: 33
Posts: 434
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E?
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| DrS
Forum Elite
Topics: 32
Posts: 338
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E
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| MRMAVERICK
Forum Guru
Topics: 42
Posts: 763
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yup it looks like E-
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| muzammil
Forum Guru
Topics: 16
Posts: 664
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i wud also go for e
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