structure
Forum Junior
Topics: 26
Posts: 28
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a 20 yr old nullidravid woman comes to the physician 12 hrs after her boyfriend's condom broke during sexual intercourse. She uses no other contraceptive method. Her last menstrual period was 14 days ago. examination shows no abnormalities. She is concerned because she doesn't want to be pregnant> WHich of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. oral gonadotropin-release hormone agoinst therapy
B. high dose oral contraceptive therapy
C injection of human chorionic gonadotropin
D. insertion of an IUD
E. immediate dilation and curettage
I pick B
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| frank100
Forum Guru
Topics: 48
Posts: 586
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B. plan B (pill) is a high dose of oral contrasceptive.
and remember: if plan A fails, then go to PLAN B (laughs)
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| Perhaps
Forum Elite
Topics: 61
Posts: 162
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agree B
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