asmi
Forum Hero
Topics: 1043
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man who has Neurofibromatosis type 1 (autosomal dominant) marries a phenotypically normal woman. If they have five children, what is the probability that none of the children will be affected with this disorder? What is the probability that all of the children will be affected?
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| Idiopathic
Forum Guru
Topics: 19
Posts: 641
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Actually, the probablity is the same for each case. Either scenario carries a 50% chance in a single case. So:
(0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) X (0.5) = 0.03125 or 3.125% that all will have the disease or that none will have the disease.
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| asmi
Forum Hero
Topics: 1043
Posts: 4,609
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Yes its 50%, but calculation is like this...
50% means 1/2...,so (1/2)5 = 1/32
(since there r 5 childrens)
answer is 1/32 :1/32
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| Idiopathic
Forum Guru
Topics: 19
Posts: 641
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Right...i just used a claculator :oops:
1/32 = 3.125%
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| asmi
Forum Hero
Topics: 1043
Posts: 4,609
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good :oops:
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| meg
Forum Guru
Topics: 62
Posts: 806
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guys, what would be the answer, if they twist it a little, like
1)what is the probability that only 1 of the 5 will have NF?
2)what is the probability that only 2 of 5 will have NF?
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| asmi
Forum Hero
Topics: 1043
Posts: 4,609
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can you tell us meg
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| meg
Forum Guru
Topics: 62
Posts: 806
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sorry Asmi, probability calculations is something that I am struggling with :oops:
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Probability for each individual to get disease is same - 50%
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