usmle_mom
Forum Newbie
Topics: 4
Posts: 13
|
Just out of curiosity I want to know that when we say that an Internal Medicine doctor earns 180,000 and an OBGyn earns 250,000....do we mean that he/she gets this amount after paying for malpratice insurance. Or the insurance premiums have to deducted from this amount. I am asking this question because many people advocate against OBgyn saying that it has higher insurance cost...so the extra money these people make actually goes in paying for higher insurance costs.
|
| superabood
Forum Elite
Topics: 54
Posts: 275
|
ok, the malpractice insurance is paid by the hospital/istitution where U work, so Ob/Gyn is still higher
but I donno about working in NGO or private clinics, most propably they won't pay, so the rule is not applied there.
Edited by superabood on 10/01/06 - 04:56 AM
|
| chemamr
Forum Hero
Topics: 703
Posts: 4,488
|
usmle_mom: those numbers are before the payment of malpractice insurance. but if you work in a hospital, they pay it for you, but it varies a lot, it depends on the state, taxes, private or hospitalist or academic, or etc, etc.
|
| ManuNastai
|
Is it before or after taxes? (those numbers that appear everywhere we look for physicians' salaryes)
|
| superabood
Forum Elite
Topics: 54
Posts: 275
|
it's before anything sustracted
|
| ManuNastai
|
thanks
|
| ManuNastai
|
how much (percentage) is sustracted?
|
| chemamr
Forum Hero
Topics: 703
Posts: 4,488
|
taxes in USA depends on how much you earn (the more you make, the more taxes they get), if your wife is working, and other stuff. To know this is enough at this time, i think. We have not even gotten a residency position.
|
|
| |
| | | | | | | | |
